let me ask you a simple question that you're too cowardly to give the obvious answer to: did the denial of service to blacks before civil rights cause harm?
You ask an emotional question without considering all the possibilities. You don't understand indifference and actionable harms are two distinct circumstances. One involves an act of aggression, the other does not.
That's okay, but when you argue from the premise that they are the same, the rest of your arguments are as worthless as a pile of digested french fries on a Wendy's floor.
The proper questions are:
"does initiating force against an indifferent person that does not want to associate with somebody and who remains on their own property create a victim? Yes. The person being forced to associate is the victim, Mr. Rapist.
Is it acceptable for a person of any color to be "allowed" to chose their associations and not have somebody else force them to associate? Why YES it is, all people have the right to control their own body and justly acquired property.
How many gerbils can one man hide in his rectum? I confess, you would have a better grasp on that deep question. I defer to your wisdom here.
